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Question Number 89576 by M±th+et£s last updated on 18/Apr/20
is  lim_(x→a) ⌊f(x)⌋=⌊lim_(x→a )  f(x)⌋
islimxaf(x)=limxaf(x)
Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Apr/20
i think no.  example f(x)=((sin x)/x)  lim_(x→0) ⌊f(x)⌋=0, since 0<((sin x)/x)<1 ⇒⌊((sin x)/x)⌋=0  ⌊lim_(x→0) f(x)⌋=1, since lim_(x→0) (((sin x)/x))=1
ithinkno.examplef(x)=sinxxlimx0f(x)=0,since0<sinxx<1sinxx=0limx0f(x)=1,sincelimx0(sinxx)=1
Commented by M±th+et£s last updated on 18/Apr/20
yes sir it was typo and thank you
yessiritwastypoandthankyou
Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Apr/20
nice to see that you can edit your post.
nicetoseethatyoucanedityourpost.

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