Question Number 90471 by frc2crc last updated on 23/Apr/20
$${is}\:{there}\:{a}\:{simple}\:{way} \\ $$$${to}\:{write} \\ $$$$\underset{{n}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{2}}{{n}\left({n}+\mathrm{1}\right)}\right)^{{m}} \:{for}\:{any}\:{m}\geqslant\mathrm{0} \\ $$