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Question Number 55908 by gunawan last updated on 06/Mar/19
known a < (π/2) .  If  M<1 with ∣cos x−cos y∣≤M ∣x−y∣  for every x, y ∈ [0,a], then M=..
knowna<π2.IfM<1withcosxcosy∣⩽Mxyforeveryx,y[0,a],thenM=..
Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 07/Mar/19
let y>x  so cosx>cosy  =cosx−cosy  =+ve  but x−y=−ve  ∣x−y∣=+ve  from attached graph  tanθ=((y_2 −y_1 )/(x_2 −x_1 ))=((cosy−cosx)/(y−x))  tanθ=M=((cosy−cosx)/(y−x)) but cosx>cosy  y>x  so tanθ=M  is −ve  wait...
lety>xsocosx>cosy=cosxcosy=+vebutxy=vexy∣=+vefromattachedgraphtanθ=y2y1x2x1=cosycosxyxtanθ=M=cosycosxyxbutcosx>cosyy>xsotanθ=Misvewait
Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 07/Mar/19
Commented by gunawan last updated on 07/Mar/19
What is the +ve Sir?
Whatisthe+veSir?

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