Question Number 55908 by gunawan last updated on 06/Mar/19
![known a < (π/2) . If M<1 with ∣cos x−cos y∣≤M ∣x−y∣ for every x, y ∈ [0,a], then M=..](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q55908.png)
Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 07/Mar/19

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 07/Mar/19

Commented by gunawan last updated on 07/Mar/19
