Question Number 33587 by abdo imad last updated on 19/Apr/18
$${let}\:{f}\left({x}\right)=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\pi} {ln}\:\left({x}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−\mathrm{2}{x}\:{cos}\theta\:+\mathrm{1}\right){d}\theta\:\:{with}\:\mid{x}\mid<\mathrm{1} \\ $$$${give}\:{a}\:{simple}\:{form}\:{of}\:{f}\left({x}\right). \\ $$