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Question Number 40095 by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 15/Jul/18
let f(x) =cos(x)cos((1/x))  is f  have a limit at point 0?
letf(x)=cos(x)cos(1x)isfhavealimitatpoint0?
Answered by math khazana by abdo last updated on 26/Jul/18
let x_n = (2/(nπ))  we have lim_(n→+∞)  x_n =0 and  f(x_n ) =cos((2/(nπ)))cos(((nπ)/2)) ⇒  f(x_(2n) ) =cos((2/(2nπ)))cos(((2nπ)/2))=cos((1/(nπ)))(−1)^n   and (−1)^n  dont have any limit and  that prove  that f haven t any limit at point 0
letxn=2nπwehavelimn+xn=0andf(xn)=cos(2nπ)cos(nπ2)f(x2n)=cos(22nπ)cos(2nπ2)=cos(1nπ)(1)nand(1)ndonthaveanylimitandthatprovethatfhaventanylimitatpoint0

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