Question Number 36175 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 30/May/18
$${let}\:{g}\left({x},{y}\right)\:=\:\frac{\mathrm{1}+{x}+{y}}{{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−{y}^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$$${is}\:{g}\:{have}\:{a}\:{limit}\:{at}\:\left(\mathrm{0},\mathrm{0}\right)? \\ $$