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let-gt-0-prove-that-k-1-n-1-k-n-n-n-e-1-e-

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Question Number 33337 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 14/Apr/18
let α>0 prove that Σ_(k=1) ^n (1−α(k/n))_(n→∞) ^n → (e^(−α) /(1−e^(−α) ))
letα>0provethat∑k=1n(1−αkn)n→∞n→e−α1−e−α

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