Question Number 40787 by rahul 19 last updated on 27/Jul/18

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 27/Jul/18

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 27/Jul/18

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 28/Jul/18

Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 28/Jul/18

Answered by MJS last updated on 27/Jul/18
![the integrals represent the areas between the functions and the x−axis. so all we have to show is u((sin sin x)/(sin x))≥((sin x)/x)≤((sin tan x)/(tan x)) ∀x∈[(π/6); (π/3)] for x=(π/6) we get 2sin (1/2)≥(3/π)≥(√3)sin ((√3)/3) .958...≥.954...≥.945... for x=(π/3) we get ((2(√3))/3)sin ((√3)/2)≥((3(√3))/(2π))≥((√3)/3)sin (√3) .87...≥.82...≥.56... we have to show that the functions are falling within the given interval (they don′t have any “jumps” or “holes”) x∈[(π/6); (π/3)] ⇒ ⇒ sin x ∈[(1/2); ((√3)/2)] ⇒ sin sin x is increasing ⇒ tan x ∈[((√3)/3); (√3)] ⇒ sin tan x is increasing both without any salience the denominators x, sin x and tan x have no zeros in the given intervall ⇒ try to find the amount of increasement in the interval (∫f′(x)dx=f(x)) [((sin sin x)/(sin x))]_(π/6) ^(π/3) ≈−.079 [((sin x)/x)]_(π/6) ^(π/3) ≈−.128 [((sin tan x)/(tan x))]_(π/6) ^(π/3) ≈−.376 so those who start at a lower value loose more along the way ⇒ this should be proven or simply plot them ;−)](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q40795.png)