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Let-I-n-0-pi-4-1-tan-A-1-tan-A-n-dA-what-is-the-Laplace-Transform-and-the-Fourier-Transform-




Question Number 85914 by frc2crc last updated on 26/Mar/20
Let I_n =∫_(0 ) ^(π/4) (((1−tan A)/(1+tan A)))^n dA  what is  the Laplace Transform and the  Fourier Transform
LetIn=π/40(1tanA1+tanA)ndAwhatistheLaplaceTransformandtheFourierTransform
Answered by mind is power last updated on 26/Mar/20
I_n =∫_0 ^(π/4) (((cos(A)−sin(A))/(sin(A)+cos(A))))^n dA  =∫_0 ^(π/4) (−1)^n {((sin(A−(π/4)))/(cos(A−(π/4))))}^n   =(−1)^n ∫_0 ^(π/4) tg^n (A−(π/4))dA  y=A−(π/4)⇒dy=dA  =(−1)^n ∫_(−(π/4)) ^0 tg^n (y)dy,t=tg(y)⇒dy=(dt/(1+t^2 ))  =(−1)^n ∫_(−1) ^0 (t^n /(1+t^2 ))dt  =∫_0 ^1 (t^n /(1+t^2 ))dt=∫_0 ^1 t^n .(Σ_(k≥0) (−t^2 )^k )dt  =∫_0 ^1 Σ_(k≥0) (−1)^k t^(2k+n) dt=Σ_(k≥0) (((−1)^k )/(2k+n+1))  =Σ_(k≥0) ((Π_(t=0) ^(k−1) (((n+1)/2)+t).  Π_(t=0) ^(k−1) (1+t))/(2Π_(t=0) ^(k−1) (((n+3)/2)+t)))    (((−1)^k )/(k!))  =(1/2)Σ_(k≥0) (((1+t)_k (((n+1)/2)+t)_k )/((((n+3)/2)+t)_k )).(((−1)^k )/(k!^ ))  =((1 )/2) _2 F_1 (1,((n+1)/2);((n+3)/2);−1)
In=0π4(cos(A)sin(A)sin(A)+cos(A))ndA=0π4(1)n{sin(Aπ4)cos(Aπ4)}n=(1)n0π4tgn(Aπ4)dAy=Aπ4dy=dA=(1)nπ40tgn(y)dy,t=tg(y)dy=dt1+t2=(1)n10tn1+t2dt=01tn1+t2dt=01tn.(k0(t2)k)dt=01k0(1)kt2k+ndt=k0(1)k2k+n+1=k0k1t=0(n+12+t).k1t=0(1+t)2k1t=0(n+32+t)(1)kk!=12k0(1+t)k(n+12+t)k(n+32+t)k.(1)kk!=122F1(1,n+12;n+32;1)

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