Let-I-n-0-pi-4-1-tan-A-1-tan-A-n-dA-what-is-the-Laplace-Transform-and-the-Fourier-Transform- Tinku Tara June 4, 2023 Integration 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 85914 by frc2crc last updated on 26/Mar/20 LetIn=∫π/40(1−tanA1+tanA)ndAwhatistheLaplaceTransformandtheFourierTransform Answered by mind is power last updated on 26/Mar/20 In=∫0π4(cos(A)−sin(A)sin(A)+cos(A))ndA=∫0π4(−1)n{sin(A−π4)cos(A−π4)}n=(−1)n∫0π4tgn(A−π4)dAy=A−π4⇒dy=dA=(−1)n∫−π40tgn(y)dy,t=tg(y)⇒dy=dt1+t2=(−1)n∫−10tn1+t2dt=∫01tn1+t2dt=∫01tn.(∑k⩾0(−t2)k)dt=∫01∑k⩾0(−1)kt2k+ndt=∑k⩾0(−1)k2k+n+1=∑k⩾0∏k−1t=0(n+12+t).∏k−1t=0(1+t)2∏k−1t=0(n+32+t)(−1)kk!=12∑k⩾0(1+t)k(n+12+t)k(n+32+t)k.(−1)kk!=122F1(1,n+12;n+32;−1) Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: A-small-particle-of-mass-m-is-projected-at-an-angle-with-the-x-axis-with-an-initial-velocity-v-0-in-the-x-y-plane-as-shown-in-the-Figure-At-a-time-t-lt-v-0-sin-g-the-angular-momentum-of-Next Next post: 0-sin-x-2-dx- Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.