Question Number 163718 by HongKing last updated on 09/Jan/22
![let m∈N and 0<x<m if i = [(((m + 1)x)/(x + 1))] prove that 2 ((m),(( i)) ) ≥ x^(m-i) where [x] is integer part of x and ((m),(( i)) ) is a binomial coefficient](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q163718.png)
$$\mathrm{let}\:\:\mathrm{m}\in\mathbb{N}\:\:\mathrm{and}\:\:\mathrm{0}<\mathrm{x}<\mathrm{m} \\ $$$$\mathrm{if}\:\:\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{i}}\:=\:\left[\frac{\left(\mathrm{m}\:+\:\mathrm{1}\right)\mathrm{x}}{\mathrm{x}\:+\:\mathrm{1}}\right] \\ $$$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{that}\:\:\:\mathrm{2}\begin{pmatrix}{\mathrm{m}}\\{\:\:\mathrm{i}}\end{pmatrix}\:\geqslant\:\mathrm{x}^{\boldsymbol{\mathrm{m}}-\boldsymbol{\mathrm{i}}} \\ $$$$\mathrm{where}\:\left[\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}\right]\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{integer}\:\mathrm{part}\:\mathrm{of}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{x}}\:\mathrm{and}\:\begin{pmatrix}{\mathrm{m}}\\{\:\:\mathrm{i}}\end{pmatrix} \\ $$$$\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{a}\:\mathrm{binomial}\:\mathrm{coefficient} \\ $$