Question Number 30597 by abdo imad last updated on 23/Feb/18
$${let}\:{p}\left({x}\right)=\left(\mathrm{1}+{x}\right)^{{m}} \:−{e}^{\mathrm{2}{imx}} \left(\mathrm{1}−{x}\right)^{{m}} \:{factorize}\:{p}\left({x}\right) \\ $$$${inside}\:{C}\left[{x}\right]. \\ $$