Question Number 171472 by Mastermind last updated on 15/Jun/22
$${li}\underset{{a}\rightarrow\infty} {{m}}\:\underset{{n}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{{a}} {\sum}}\frac{{e}^{{in}} .{ln}\mid\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{x}}\mid}{\pi{n}^{\mathrm{2}} }.{tan}^{−\mathrm{1}} \left({n}\sqrt{\pi}\right) \\ $$$$ \\ $$$${Mastermind} \\ $$