Question Number 99846 by bachamohamed last updated on 23/Jun/20
$$\:\:\:\:\boldsymbol{{li}}\underset{\boldsymbol{{n}}\rightarrow\infty} {\boldsymbol{{m}}}\left(\mathrm{1}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}!}\right)^{\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}!}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}!}\right)^{………\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\boldsymbol{{n}}!}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\boldsymbol{{n}}+\mathrm{1}\right)!}\right)} } =? \\ $$
Commented by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 23/Jun/20
$${Ans}=\mathrm{1} \\ $$