Question Number 162718 by qaz last updated on 31/Dec/21
$$\underset{\mathrm{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\int_{\epsilon} ^{\mathrm{1}} \left(\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)^{\mathrm{n}} \mathrm{dx}}{\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \left(\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)^{\mathrm{n}} \mathrm{dx}}=?\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\left(\mathrm{0}<\epsilon<\mathrm{1}\right) \\ $$