Question Number 99355 by bemath last updated on 20/Jun/20
$$\underset{{x}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:−\mathrm{cot}\:^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{x}\:\right)\:=? \\ $$
Commented by john santu last updated on 20/Jun/20
$$\mathrm{maybe}\:\underset{{x}\rightarrow\mathrm{0}} {\mathrm{lim}}\:\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:−\:\mathrm{cot}\:^{\mathrm{2}} \mathrm{x}\:\right) \\ $$
Commented by Farruxjano last updated on 20/Jun/20
��������