p-0-n-psh-a-bp- Tinku Tara June 4, 2023 Mensuration 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 147828 by puissant last updated on 23/Jul/21 ∑np=0psh(a+bp) Answered by Olaf_Thorendsen last updated on 23/Jul/21 ∑np=0ch(2a+2pb)=ch(2a+nb)sh((n+1)b)shb(voirquestionprecedente)⇒∑np=0ch(a+pb)=ch(a+n2b)sh(n+12b)shb2∂∂b∑np=0ch(a+pb)=∑np=0psh(a+pb)=∂∂b(ch(a+n2b)sh(n+12b)shb2)…calculfastidieux! Commented by puissant last updated on 23/Jul/21 merciprofc′esttrivial… Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: calculate-p-2-and-q-2-1-p-q-Next Next post: prove-that-cos-2-log-cos-sin-cos-sin-1-2-sin-2-log-tan-pi-4-1-2-log-cos-2- Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.