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Question Number 98310 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 12/Jun/20
prove by using serie that ∫_0 ^∞  cos(x^2 )dx =∫_0 ^∞ sin(x^2 )dx
$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{by}\:\mathrm{using}\:\mathrm{serie}\:\mathrm{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\mathrm{cos}\left(\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dx}\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \mathrm{sin}\left(\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dx} \\ $$

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