Question Number 98310 by mathmax by abdo last updated on 12/Jun/20
$$\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{by}\:\mathrm{using}\:\mathrm{serie}\:\mathrm{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\mathrm{cos}\left(\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dx}\:=\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \mathrm{sin}\left(\mathrm{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dx} \\ $$