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prove-d-dx-sec-2-pi-4-2-




Question Number 158453 by zakirullah last updated on 04/Nov/21
prove (d/dx)sec^2 (π/4) = 2
$${prove}\:\frac{{d}}{{dx}}{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\:=\:\mathrm{2} \\ $$
Commented by yeti123 last updated on 04/Nov/21
(d/dx)(sec^2 (π/4)) = (d/dx)(2) = 0
$$\frac{{d}}{{dx}}\left(\mathrm{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\pi/\mathrm{4}\right)\right)\:=\:\frac{{d}}{{dx}}\left(\mathrm{2}\right)\:=\:\mathrm{0} \\ $$
Commented by zakirullah last updated on 04/Nov/21
excuse me sir! i mean   how f^′ ((π/4)) = sec^2 (π/4) = 2 according to taylor series.
$${excuse}\:{me}\:{sir}!\:{i}\:{mean} \\ $$$$\:{how}\:{f}^{'} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\right)\:=\:{sec}^{\mathrm{2}} \frac{\pi}{\mathrm{4}}\:=\:\mathrm{2}\:{according}\:{to}\:{taylor}\:{series}. \\ $$$$ \\ $$

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