prove-that-0-pi-2-ln-1-sinx-1-sinx-cosx-1-sinx-1-sinx-dx-8- Tinku Tara June 4, 2023 None 0 Comments FacebookTweetPin Question Number 114107 by mathdave last updated on 17/Sep/20 provethat∫0π2[ln(1−sinx1+sinx)cosx(1+sinx)1−sinx]dx=−8 Commented by mathdave last updated on 17/Sep/20 Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 06/Sep/21 greatsir Answered by maths mind last updated on 17/Sep/20 =∫0π2ln(1−cos(x)1+cos(x))sin(x)(1+cos(x))1−cos(x)dx1+cos(x)=2cos2(x2)and1−cos(x)=2sin2(x2)⇒=∫0π2ln(tg2(x2))2sin(x2)cos(x2)2cos2(x2)2sin2(x2)dx=2∫0π2ln(tg(x2))sin(x2)cos(x2)dx2cos2(x2)tg(x2)=t⇒dt=dx2cos2(x2)weget=2∫01ln(x)xdx=[4xln(x)]01−4∫01dxx=−4[2x]01=−8 Terms of Service Privacy Policy Contact: info@tinkutara.com FacebookTweetPin Post navigation Previous Previous post: dx-tan-x-sin-x-Next Next post: prove-that-2-tan-1-2-3-sin-1-12-13- Leave a Reply Cancel replyYour email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *Comment * Name * Save my name, email, and website in this browser for the next time I comment.