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Prove-that-0-pi-2-ln-a-sin-2-x-dx-piln-a-1-a-1-pi-2-ln-a-4-a-gt-0-Im-a-0-




Question Number 170384 by amin96 last updated on 22/May/22
Prove that  ∫_0 ^( (π/2)) ln(a−sin^2 (x))dx=πln((√((a−1)/a))+1)+(π/2)ln((a/4))  a>0    Im{a}≠0
Provethat0π2ln(asin2(x))dx=πln(a1a+1)+π2ln(a4)a>0Im{a}0

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