Question Number 106683 by Ar Brandon last updated on 06/Aug/20
$$\mathrm{Prove}\:\mathrm{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\pi} \mathrm{ln}\left(\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{2}\alpha\mathrm{cost}+\alpha^{\mathrm{2}} \right)\mathrm{dt}=\mathrm{2}\pi\mathrm{ln}\alpha \\ $$