Question Number 169809 by mokys last updated on 09/May/22
$${prove}\:{that}\:\int_{\mathrm{0}} ^{\:\infty} {x}^{{r}} \:.\:{e}^{{ax}} \:{dx}\:=\:\left(−{a}\right)^{−{r}−\mathrm{1}} \:.\Gamma\left({r}+\mathrm{1}\right) \\ $$
Commented by mokys last updated on 09/May/22
$$????? \\ $$