Question Number 33985 by abdo imad last updated on 28/Apr/18
$${prove}\:{that}\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}+{cosx}}\:=\mathrm{2}\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} {n}\left(−\mathrm{1}\right)^{{n}−\mathrm{1}} {cos}\left({nx}\right)\:{for} \\ $$$${x}\neq{k}\pi\:,{k}\in\:{Z}\:. \\ $$