prove-that-1-2-3-

Question Number 185973 by normans last updated on 30/Jan/23

[p r o v e t h a t;]

1 + 2 = 3

Commented by MJS_new last updated on 30/Jan/23

if “ 1^{″} = 1 \in N \land “ 2^{″} = 2 \in N \land “ 3^{″} = 3 \in N \land (“ +^{″}

is the common addition) \land (“ =^{″} is the common

equality sign) :

lhs 1 + 2 = 3

rhs 3

lhs = rhs

Commented by MJS_new last updated on 30/Jan/23

questions like this one only make sense when

we specify what tools are allowed for the

proof .

i . e . “ prove that - 5 \div 4 is not {defined}^{″} only

makes sense when we are limited to Z

Answered by Mathspace last updated on 30/Jan/23

b u t i n Z / 3 Z 1 + 2 = 0 f i r s t y o u m u s t c h o o s e t h e s e t!

Commented by MJS_new last updated on 30/Jan/23

yes .

Facebook Tweet Pin