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Question Number 166331 by mr W last updated on 18/Feb/22
prove that  ((df^(−1) (a))/dx)×((df(f^(−1) (a)))/dx)=1
provethatdf1(a)dx×df(f1(a))dx=1
Commented by mr W last updated on 19/Feb/22
it is meant that  ((df^(−1) (a))/dx)=((df^(−1) (x))/dx)∣_(x=a)   ((df(f^(−1) (a)))/dx)=((df(x))/dx)∣_(x=f^(−1) (a))
itismeantthatdf1(a)dx=df1(x)dxx=adf(f1(a))dx=df(x)dxx=f1(a)
Answered by mathsmine last updated on 18/Feb/22
fof^− (x)=x  ⇒((df^− (x))/dx).(df/dx)(f^− (x))=1  x=a
fof(x)=xdf(x)dx.dfdx(f(x))=1x=a
Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Feb/22
thanks sir!
thankssir!
Answered by mr W last updated on 19/Feb/22
Commented by mr W last updated on 18/Feb/22
geometric way:  f^(−1) (x) and f(x) are symmetric about  the line y=x.   tangent line at Q(a,f^(−1) (a)) is   symmetric to the tangent line at  P(f^(−1) (a),a).  ((df^(−1) (a))/dx)=tan ((π/2)−θ)=(1/(tan θ))  ((df(f^(−1) (a)))/dx)=tan θ  ((df^(−1) (a))/dx)×((df(f^(−1) (a)))/dx)=(1/(tan θ))×tan θ=1
geometricway:f1(x)andf(x)aresymmetricabouttheliney=x.tangentlineatQ(a,f1(a))issymmetrictothetangentlineatP(f1(a),a).df1(a)dx=tan(π2θ)=1tanθdf(f1(a))dx=tanθdf1(a)dx×df(f1(a))dx=1tanθ×tanθ=1

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