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prove-that-i-1-n-j-0-p-i-j-n-n-1-n-2-n-p-1-p-2-




Question Number 32276 by abdo imad last updated on 22/Mar/18
prove that Σ_(i=1) ^n  (Π_(j=0) ^p (i+j))=((n(n+1)(n+2)...(n+p+1))/(p+2))
provethati=1n(j=0p(i+j))=n(n+1)(n+2)(n+p+1)p+2

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