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Prove-that-if-f-is-such-as-f-x-f-x-x-1-x-f-x-and-f-1-0-but-f-Then-f-is-the-unique-bijection-from-R-to-R-and-lim-x-0-f-x-and-lim-x-0-xf-x-0-0-f-1-




Question Number 129319 by snipers237 last updated on 14/Jan/21
Prove that    if f is such as f ′(x)=((f(x))/(x(1−x−f(x))))  and f(1)=0 but f ≇Θ . Then   ★ f is the unique bijection from R^∗  to R and    ★lim_(x→0)  f(x)=+∞  and lim_(x→0) xf(x)=0   ★ ∫_0 ^(+∞) f^(−1) (y)dy= ζ(2)=∫_0 ^1 f(x)dx
Provethatiffissuchasf(x)=f(x)x(1xf(x))andf(1)=0butfΘ.ThenfistheuniquebijectionfromRtoRandlimx0f(x)=+andlimx0xf(x)=00+f1(y)dy=ζ(2)=01f(x)dx

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