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Prove-that-If-f-x-is-Riemann-integrable-on-a-b-and-M-gt-0-s-t-x-a-b-f-x-0-and-f-x-lt-M-and-1-f-x-lt-M-then-1-f-x-is-Riemann-integrable-on-a-b-

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Question Number 26142 by moxhix last updated on 21/Dec/17
Prove that If f(x) is Riemann integrable on [a,b] and ∃M>0 s.t. ∀x∈[a,b] (f(x)≠0 and ∣f(x)∣<M and ∣(1/(f(x)))∣<M), then (1/(f(x))) is Riemann integrable on [a,b].
ProvethatIff(x)isRiemannintegrableon[a,b]and∃M>0s.t.∀x∈[a,b](f(x)≠0and∣f(x)∣<Mand∣1f(x)∣<M),then1f(x)isRiemannintegrableon[a,b].

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