Question Number 40880 by prof Abdo imad last updated on 28/Jul/18
$${prove}\:{that}\:\sum_{{k}={n}} ^{\infty} \:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{k}^{\alpha} }\:\sim\:\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\left(\alpha−\mathrm{1}\right){n}^{\alpha−\mathrm{1}} }{with}\:\alpha>\mathrm{1} \\ $$