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Question Number 40434 by vitlu last updated on 21/Jul/18
prove that ln(x) is irrational for x natural
$${prove}\:{that}\:\mathrm{ln}\left({x}\right)\:{is}\:{irrational}\:{for}\:{x}\:{natural} \\ $$
Commented by math khazana by abdo last updated on 21/Jul/18
let x=n natural >1 let prove that ln(n)∉Q  if ln(n)∈Q  ∃(p,q)∈N^2  /ln(n) =(p/q)  we can take D(p,q)=1 ⇒n=e^(p/q)  ⇒n^q  =e^p  but  e^p  =Σ_(k=0) ^∞  (e^(kp) /(k!))  ∉ N   so the equality n^q =e^p  is  impossible because n^q  ∈N and e^p  ∉ N .
$${let}\:{x}={n}\:{natural}\:>\mathrm{1}\:{let}\:{prove}\:{that}\:{ln}\left({n}\right)\notin{Q} \\ $$$${if}\:{ln}\left({n}\right)\in{Q}\:\:\exists\left({p},{q}\right)\in{N}^{\mathrm{2}} \:/{ln}\left({n}\right)\:=\frac{{p}}{{q}} \\ $$$${we}\:{can}\:{take}\:{D}\left({p},{q}\right)=\mathrm{1}\:\Rightarrow{n}={e}^{\frac{{p}}{{q}}} \:\Rightarrow{n}^{{q}} \:={e}^{{p}} \:{but} \\ $$$${e}^{{p}} \:=\sum_{{k}=\mathrm{0}} ^{\infty} \:\frac{{e}^{{kp}} }{{k}!}\:\:\notin\:{N}\:\:\:{so}\:{the}\:{equality}\:{n}^{{q}} ={e}^{{p}} \:{is} \\ $$$${impossible}\:{because}\:{n}^{{q}} \:\in{N}\:{and}\:{e}^{{p}} \:\notin\:{N}\:. \\ $$
Commented by vitlu last updated on 21/Jul/18
thanks
$${thanks} \\ $$$$ \\ $$
Commented by maxmathsup by imad last updated on 21/Jul/18
you are wecome
$${you}\:{are}\:{wecome} \\ $$

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