Question Number 29987 by abdo imad last updated on 14/Feb/18
$${prove}\:{that}\:\:\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}_{{n}\neq{p}} } ^{\infty} \:\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}^{\mathrm{2}} \:−{p}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:=\:\:\frac{\mathrm{3}}{\mathrm{4}{p}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:. \\ $$