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prove-that-n-1-tan-1-1-F-n-tan-1-1-F-n-1-pi-2-8-Fibonacci-numbers-




Question Number 158322 by mnjuly1970 last updated on 02/Nov/21
    prove  that:  Σ_(n=1) ^∞   tan^( −1)  ( (1/F_( n) ) ).tan^( −1) ( (1/F_( n+1) ) )= (π^( 2) /8)    Fibonacci numbers
provethat:n=1tan1(1Fn).tan1(1Fn+1)=π28Fibonaccinumbers

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