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Question Number 28980 by abdo imad last updated on 02/Feb/18
prove that sin(πz)=πz Π_(k=1) ^∞ (1−(z^2 /k^2 ))  zfromC.
$${prove}\:{that}\:{sin}\left(\pi{z}\right)=\pi{z}\:\prod_{{k}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \left(\mathrm{1}−\frac{{z}^{\mathrm{2}} }{{k}^{\mathrm{2}} }\right)\:\:{zfromC}. \\ $$

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