Question Number 29841 by abdo imad last updated on 12/Feb/18
$$\left.{prove}\:{that}\:\forall\:{x}\in\right]\mathrm{0},\mathrm{1}\left[\:\:\:\:\Gamma\left({x}\right).\Gamma\left(\mathrm{1}−{x}\right)=\:\frac{\pi}{{sin}\left(\pi{x}\right)}\right. \\ $$$$\left({compliments}\:{formula}\right). \\ $$