Question Number 100285 by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 26/Jun/20
$$\mathrm{p}\:=\frac{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{n}+\mathrm{1}} } }{\mathrm{1}−\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:\:\:\mathrm{we}\:\mathrm{can}\:\mathrm{prove}\:\mathrm{this}\:\mathrm{by}\:\mathrm{recurrence}\:\:\left(\mathrm{a}^{\mathrm{2}} \:\neq\mathrm{1}\right) \\ $$
Commented by Coronavirus last updated on 26/Jun/20
��️��️ I'm just seeing
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 26/Jun/20
please sir check !��
Commented by abdomsup last updated on 27/Jun/20
$${correct} \\ $$
Commented by DGmichael last updated on 27/Jun/20
���� thanks ����