Question Number 115750 by shahria14 last updated on 28/Sep/20
Answered by Dwaipayan Shikari last updated on 28/Sep/20
$$\underset{{x}\rightarrow−\mathrm{1}} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{log}\left(\mathrm{1}+\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \right)}{\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} }=\mathrm{1} \\ $$$$\mathrm{log}\left(\mathrm{1}+\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \right)=\left(\mathrm{x}+\mathrm{1}\right)^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\mathrm{approx}\right) \\ $$
Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 28/Sep/20