Menu Close

Question-125465




Question Number 125465 by shaker last updated on 11/Dec/20
Answered by john_santu last updated on 11/Dec/20
 f ′((1/2))
$$\:{f}\:'\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\right) \\ $$
Commented by mathmax by abdo last updated on 11/Dec/20
yes if  the function is derivable  at x_0 =(1/2)  ex    →f(x)=∣x−(1/2)∣  f is not derivable at this point!
$$\mathrm{yes}\:\mathrm{if}\:\:\mathrm{the}\:\mathrm{function}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{derivable}\:\:\mathrm{at}\:\mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{0}} =\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$\mathrm{ex}\:\:\:\:\rightarrow\mathrm{f}\left(\mathrm{x}\right)=\mid\mathrm{x}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\mid\:\:\mathrm{f}\:\mathrm{is}\:\mathrm{not}\:\mathrm{derivable}\:\mathrm{at}\:\mathrm{this}\:\mathrm{point}! \\ $$

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *