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Question-154514




Question Number 154514 by 0731619 last updated on 19/Sep/21
Commented by mr W last updated on 19/Sep/21
there is not much to solve! it′s a   matter of definition.   (((2n)),(n) )=(((2n)!)/((n!)^2 ))
$${there}\:{is}\:{not}\:{much}\:{to}\:{solve}!\:{it}'{s}\:{a}\: \\ $$$${matter}\:{of}\:{definition}. \\ $$$$\begin{pmatrix}{\mathrm{2}{n}}\\{{n}}\end{pmatrix}=\frac{\left(\mathrm{2}{n}\right)!}{\left({n}!\right)^{\mathrm{2}} } \\ $$

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