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Question-159157




Question Number 159157 by physicstutes last updated on 13/Nov/21
Answered by mr W last updated on 13/Nov/21
Commented by mr W last updated on 13/Nov/21
let AA′=1  ⇒BB′=((50)/(450))×1=(1/9)  ⇒CC′=BB′=(1/9)  ⇒DD′=((75)/(300+75))×(1/9)=(1/(45))  P×1=9×(1/(45))  ⇒P=(1/5) KN  M_D =(1/5)×(450+50+300)  =160 KNmm=160 Nm
letAA=1BB=50450×1=19CC=BB=19DD=75300+75×19=145P×1=9×145P=15KNMD=15×(450+50+300)=160KNmm=160Nm
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 13/Nov/21
Great sir.
Greatsir.

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