Question Number 163393 by nurtani last updated on 06/Jan/22
Answered by Ar Brandon last updated on 06/Jan/22
$$\left[\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}\centerdot\frac{\mathrm{3}}{\mathrm{4}}\left(\mathrm{2}{x}−\mathrm{1}\right)^{\frac{\mathrm{4}}{\mathrm{3}}} −\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\pi}\mathrm{cos}\pi{x}\right]_{\mathrm{1}/\mathrm{2}} ^{\mathrm{1}} \\ $$