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Question-173645




Question Number 173645 by mokys last updated on 15/Jul/22
Commented by mr W last updated on 15/Jul/22
(1/2)×πr^2 h=((π×6^2 ×6)/2)
$$\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}×\pi{r}^{\mathrm{2}} {h}=\frac{\pi×\mathrm{6}^{\mathrm{2}} ×\mathrm{6}}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$
Commented by mokys last updated on 15/Jul/22
thank you sir
$${thank}\:{you}\:{sir} \\ $$
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 15/Jul/22
Great sir
$$\mathrm{Great}\:\mathrm{sir} \\ $$

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