Question Number 173645 by mokys last updated on 15/Jul/22
Commented by mr W last updated on 15/Jul/22
$$\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}×\pi{r}^{\mathrm{2}} {h}=\frac{\pi×\mathrm{6}^{\mathrm{2}} ×\mathrm{6}}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$
Commented by mokys last updated on 15/Jul/22
$${thank}\:{you}\:{sir} \\ $$
Commented by Tawa11 last updated on 15/Jul/22
$$\mathrm{Great}\:\mathrm{sir} \\ $$