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Question-180035




Question Number 180035 by a.lgnaoui last updated on 06/Nov/22
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Commented by a.lgnaoui last updated on 06/Nov/22
Commented by mnjuly1970 last updated on 06/Nov/22
Commented by a.lgnaoui last updated on 06/Nov/22
(suite)  Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/4^n )×(1/(cos^2 ((π/2^(n+2) )) ))=Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/4^n )=(1/3)lim_(n→∞) (((4^n −1)/4^n ))=(1/3)
$$\left({suite}\right) \\ $$$$\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}^{{n}} }×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}^{{n}+\mathrm{2}} }\right)\:}=\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}^{{n}} }=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}}\mathrm{lim}_{\mathrm{n}\rightarrow\infty} \left(\frac{\mathrm{4}^{{n}} −\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}^{{n}} }\right)=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}} \\ $$
Commented by mr W last updated on 07/Nov/22
totally wrong!  example:  Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/n^2 ) means lim_(n→∞) ((1/1^2 )+(1/2^2 )+(1/3^2 )+...+(1/n^2 ))  not  lim_(n→∞) (1/n^2 )  !    according to your logic, it should be  Σ_(n=1) ^∞ (1/4^n )×(1/(cos^2 ((π/2^(n+2) )) ))=Σ_(n=1) ^∞ 0×(1/(cos^2  0))=0  this is certainly non−sense!
$${totally}\:{wrong}! \\ $$$${example}: \\ $$$$\underset{{n}=\mathrm{1}} {\overset{\infty} {\sum}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:{means}\:\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{1}^{\mathrm{2}} }+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}^{\mathrm{2}} }+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{3}^{\mathrm{2}} }+…+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}^{\mathrm{2}} }\right) \\ $$$${not}\:\:\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}^{\mathrm{2}} }\:\:! \\ $$$$ \\ $$$${according}\:{to}\:{your}\:{logic},\:{it}\:{should}\:{be} \\ $$$$\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}^{{n}} }×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} \left(\frac{\pi}{\mathrm{2}^{{n}+\mathrm{2}} }\right)\:}=\sum_{{n}=\mathrm{1}} ^{\infty} \mathrm{0}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{cos}^{\mathrm{2}} \:\mathrm{0}}=\mathrm{0} \\ $$$${this}\:{is}\:{certainly}\:{non}−{sense}! \\ $$

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