Question Number 26354 by Tinkutara last updated on 24/Dec/17
Answered by ajfour last updated on 24/Dec/17
$${K}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}{mv}^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$\frac{{dK}}{{dx}}\:=\frac{{mvdv}}{{dx}}={ma} \\ $$$${a}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{m}}\left(\frac{{dK}}{{dx}}\right)\:\:\:\:{hence}\:\left(\mathrm{4}\right)\:{is}\:{correct}. \\ $$
Commented by Tinkutara last updated on 24/Dec/17
$$\mathrm{Thank}\:\mathrm{you}\:\mathrm{Sir}! \\ $$