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Question-32891




Question Number 32891 by mondodotto@gmail.com last updated on 05/Apr/18
Commented by Tinkutara last updated on 05/Apr/18
It is wrong.
Commented by Joel578 last updated on 05/Apr/18
sec x = (1/(cos x))
$$\mathrm{sec}\:{x}\:=\:\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{cos}\:{x}} \\ $$
Commented by mrW2 last updated on 06/Apr/18
sec^(−1) x≠(sec x)^(−1)   sec^(−1) x=arcsec x  (sec x)^(−1) =(1/(sec x))=cos x
$$\mathrm{sec}^{−\mathrm{1}} {x}\neq\left(\mathrm{sec}\:{x}\right)^{−\mathrm{1}} \\ $$$$\mathrm{sec}^{−\mathrm{1}} {x}={arcsec}\:{x} \\ $$$$\left({sec}\:{x}\right)^{−\mathrm{1}} =\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{sec}\:{x}}=\mathrm{cos}\:{x} \\ $$

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