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Question-39929




Question Number 39929 by rahul 19 last updated on 13/Jul/18
Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 13/Jul/18
  75×10=80×10−80×a×cos60^o   80×a×(1/2)=50  a=(5/4) pls check...
$$ \\ $$$$\mathrm{75}×\mathrm{10}=\mathrm{80}×\mathrm{10}−\mathrm{80}×{a}×{cos}\mathrm{60}^{{o}} \\ $$$$\mathrm{80}×{a}×\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}=\mathrm{50} \\ $$$${a}=\frac{\mathrm{5}}{\mathrm{4}}\:{pls}\:{check}… \\ $$
Commented by rahul 19 last updated on 13/Jul/18
What have u done ?  Can′t understand , without F.B.D  Yes , it′s correct.
$$\mathrm{What}\:\mathrm{have}\:\mathrm{u}\:\mathrm{done}\:? \\ $$$$\mathrm{Can}'\mathrm{t}\:\mathrm{understand}\:,\:\mathrm{without}\:\mathrm{F}.\mathrm{B}.\mathrm{D} \\ $$$$\mathrm{Yes}\:,\:\mathrm{it}'\mathrm{s}\:\mathrm{correct}. \\ $$
Commented by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 13/Jul/18
apperent wt=reaction force given by weivhing  machine=mg′↑  true wt=mg↓  man moving down   so mg>mg′  mg=mg^′  +macos(90−(θ)  80×10−75×10=80×a×cos(90−30)  a=((50)/(40))=(5/4)
$${apperent}\:{wt}={reaction}\:{force}\:{given}\:{by}\:{weivhing} \\ $$$${machine}={mg}'\uparrow \\ $$$${true}\:{wt}={mg}\downarrow \\ $$$${man}\:{moving}\:{down}\: \\ $$$${so}\:{mg}>{mg}' \\ $$$${mg}={mg}^{'} \:+{macos}\left(\mathrm{90}−\left(\theta\right)\right. \\ $$$$\mathrm{80}×\mathrm{10}−\mathrm{75}×\mathrm{10}=\mathrm{80}×{a}×{cos}\left(\mathrm{90}−\mathrm{30}\right) \\ $$$${a}=\frac{\mathrm{50}}{\mathrm{40}}=\frac{\mathrm{5}}{\mathrm{4}} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$

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