Question Number 42878 by Raj Singh last updated on 04/Sep/18
Answered by tanmay.chaudhury50@gmail.com last updated on 04/Sep/18
$$\left({sp}\right)_{\mathrm{1}} =\mathrm{4225}\:\:\:\left({cp}\right)_{\mathrm{1}} =\frac{\mathrm{100}×\mathrm{4225}}{\mathrm{116}} \\ $$$$\left({sp}\right)_{\mathrm{2}} =\mathrm{4225}\:\:\left({cp}\right)_{\mathrm{2}} =\frac{\mathrm{100}×\mathrm{4225}}{\mathrm{84}} \\ $$$${total}\:{sp}=\mathrm{4225}+\mathrm{4225}=\mathrm{8450} \\ $$$${total}\:{cp}=\mathrm{4225}×\mathrm{100}\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{116}}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{84}}\right)=\mathrm{4225}×\mathrm{100}\left(\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}×\mathrm{29}}+\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{4}×\mathrm{21}}\right) \\ $$$${total}\:{cp}=\mathrm{4225}×\mathrm{25}\left(\frac{\mathrm{21}+\mathrm{29}}{\mathrm{21}×\mathrm{29}}\right)=\frac{\mathrm{4225}×\mathrm{25}×\mathrm{50}}{\mathrm{21}×\mathrm{29}} \\ $$$${total}\:{cp}\approx\mathrm{8672} \\ $$$${overall}\:{loss}=\mathrm{8672}−\mathrm{8450}=\mathrm{222} \\ $$$$\%{loss}=\frac{\mathrm{222}}{\mathrm{8672}}×\mathrm{100}\approx\mathrm{2}.\mathrm{56} \\ $$$$ \\ $$$$ \\ $$