Question Number 62519 by azizullah last updated on 22/Jun/19
Answered by $@ty@m last updated on 22/Jun/19
$$\left({i}\right)\:{A}={bh}−\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}{bh}=\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}}{bh} \\ $$$$\Rightarrow\mathrm{2}{A}={bh} \\ $$$$\left({ii}\right)\:{A}={ab}−\mathrm{4}{x}^{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$
Commented by azizullah last updated on 22/Jun/19
$$\boldsymbol{\mathrm{thanks}}\:\boldsymbol{\mathrm{alot}}\: \\ $$