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Question-81221




Question Number 81221 by ahmadshahhimat775@gmail.com last updated on 10/Feb/20
Commented by mr W last updated on 10/Feb/20
=lim_(nā†’āˆž) ((1/n)/2)  =lim_(nā†’āˆž) (1/(2n))  =0
$$=\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\frac{\mathrm{1}}{{n}}}{\mathrm{2}} \\ $$$$=\underset{{n}\rightarrow\infty} {\mathrm{lim}}\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\mathrm{2}{n}} \\ $$$$=\mathrm{0} \\ $$

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