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Question-98544




Question Number 98544 by abony1303 last updated on 14/Jun/20
Commented by abony1303 last updated on 14/Jun/20
Pls help
Plshelp
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 14/Jun/20
lim_(x→0)    ((f(x)−f(0))/(x−0)) =lim_(x→0)   ((x^2  sin((1/x))+0)/x) =lim_(x→0)   xsin((1/x)) =0  because ∣xsin((1/x))∣ ≤∣x∣ ⇒ f is derivable at 0 and f^′ (0) =0
limx0f(x)f(0)x0=limx0x2sin(1x)+0x=limx0xsin(1x)=0becausexsin(1x)⩽∣xfisderivableat0andf(0)=0

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