Question Number 114812 by Ar Brandon last updated on 21/Sep/20

Answered by mr W last updated on 21/Sep/20

Commented by Ar Brandon last updated on 21/Sep/20
�� Thanks Mr W.
Answered by 1549442205PVT last updated on 21/Sep/20
![Put arcsin(2x−1)=ϕ(ϕ∈[−(π/2);(π/2)]). .We will prove thar P= sin((π/4)+(ϕ/2))=(√x).Indeed, sinϕ=2x−1(1),so P=sin((π/4)+(ϕ/2))= sin(π/4)cos(ϕ/2)+cos(π/4)sin(ϕ/2)= ((√2)/2)(cos(ϕ/2)+sin(ϕ/2))⇒(√2)P=cos(ϕ/2)+sin(ϕ/2) ⇒2P^2 =cos^2 (ϕ/2)+sin^2 (ϕ/2)+2sin(ϕ/2)cos(ϕ/2) ⇔2P^2 =1+sinϕ=1+(2x−1)=2x (by (1))Since ϕ∈[((−π)/2);(π/2)],(π/4)+(ϕ/2)∈[0;π] ⇒P=sin((π/4)+(ϕ/2))≥0.Therefore, 2P^2 =2x⇔P^2 =x⇔P=sin((π/4)+(ϕ/2))=(√x) ⇒ arcsin((√x))=(π/4)+(ϕ/2). Thus,arcsin((√x))=(π/4)+(1/2)arcsin(2x−1) (due to arcsin(2x−1)=ϕ)(Q.E.D](https://www.tinkutara.com/question/Q114838.png)
Answered by mathmax by abdo last updated on 22/Sep/20
